We had two problems in class on integration that we write up here. 1. β« π₯ sin π₯ cos π₯ ππ₯ As we started in class, we let ππ£ = sin π₯ cos π₯ ππ₯, π’ = π₯. Then π£ = sin2 π₯ and ππ’ = ππ₯. By te integration by parts formula, we have that the original integral is equal to π₯ sin2 π₯ β β« sin2 π₯ ππ₯. To solve the remaining integral, we use the half angle formula, sin2 π₯ = Consequently, 1βcos(2π₯) . 2 1 1 1 1 β« sin2 π₯ ππ₯ = β« ( ) ππ₯ β β« cos(2π₯) ππ₯ = π₯ β sin(2π₯) + πΆ, 2 2 2 4 Where in the first integral we used the power rule in reverse and in the second we used the substitution π€ = 2π₯. 2. β« sec 3 π₯ ππ₯ We approach this by integration by parts using π’ = sec(π₯) , ππ£ = sec 2 π₯ ππ₯, and so ππ’ = sec(π₯) tan(π₯) , π£ = tan(π₯). By the integration by parts formula we have β« sec 3 π₯ ππ₯ = sec(π₯) tan(π₯) β β« sec(π₯) tan2 π₯ ππ₯. For the remaining integral, we use the trig identity tan2 π₯ = sec 2 π₯ β 1, transforming the integral: β« sec(π₯) tan2 (π₯) ππ₯ = β« sec 3(π₯) ππ₯ β β« sec(π₯) ππ₯. The first integral here is our original integral so we leave it aside for a moment. We can evaluate the second integral using a sneaky trick: β« sec(π₯) ππ₯ = β« sec(π₯) (sec(π₯) + tan(π₯)) ππ₯ = β«(sec 2 (π₯) + sec(π₯) tan(π₯))/(sec(π₯) + tan(π₯)) ππ₯ sec(π₯) + tan(π₯) We now use a substitution: π€ = sec(π₯) + tan(π₯) , ππ€ = sec(π₯) tan(π₯) + sec 2(π₯). So, β«(sec 2(π₯) + sec(π₯) tan(π₯))/(sec(π₯) + tan(π₯)) ππ₯ = β« π€ β1 ππ€ = ln|π€| + πΆ = ln | sec(π₯) + tan(π₯)| + πΆ. Putting this all together, β« sec 3 π₯ ππ₯ = sec(π₯) tan(π₯) β β« sec 3(π₯)ππ₯ + ln|sec(π₯) + tan(π₯)| + πΆ. Solving for the original integral yields, 1 β« sec 3 π₯ ππ₯ = (sec(π₯) tan(π₯) + ln|sec(π₯) + tan(π₯)|) + πΆ. 2 Note this is a tricky problem. If we were to put such a problem on an exam, there would be lots of hints.
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