EXAM 1 (72 points)
Biol 7 (Spring 2013) Riggs
Name __________________________
Multiple Choice (1 pt each) Choose the very best answer. Please answer 1-38 on your scantron.
1.
______ Physiology is specifically the study of
a. structure
b. function
c.
life
d. both A and B are correct
2.
______ Which of the following statements about homeostasis is FALSE?
a. The extracellular fluid is maintained in a relatively stable state compatible with life.
b. If homeostasis is not maintained, the ultimate outcome could be death.
c. The organ systems work together to maintain homeostasis.
d. The primary mechanism to maintain homeostasis is positive feedback.
3.
______ Negative feedback
a. stabilizes the variable being regulated.
c. reinforces the stimulus.
b. can prevent the initial disturbance of homeostasis.
d. none of these answers are correct
4.
______ The composition of plasma is essentially identical to interstitial fluid, except for the presence of
a. sodium ions
b. plasma proteins
c. neurotransmitter
d. calcium ions
5.
______ The cell membrane is
a. impermeable to all solutes
b. permeable to all solutes
c.
semi-permeable
6.
______ The most significant difference between a paracrine and an autocrine is
a. the cell that releases it.
b. the cell that responds to it.
c. the method of transport.
d. the route of transport.
e. There are no differences; paracrines and autocrines are the same.
7.
______ Why do some normal cells fail to respond to a particular hormone?
a. Hormones are only delivered to specific cells.
b. Some cells lack the necessary receptors.
c. Some cells are completely without receptors.
d. Some cells are completely without hormones.
8.
______ Receptor molecules on the surface of a cell
a. allow a particular protein to bind.
b. determine a cell's response.
9.
______ Receptor molecules are located
a. in the outer cell membrane. b. in the cytosol.
10. ______ Down-regulation may allow a target cell to
a. increase its number of receptors for a ligand.
c. increase its binding affinity for a ligand.
c. in the nucleus.
c. bind to all proteins.
d. B and C
d. A + B
e. A, B and C
b. decrease its number of receptors for a ligand.
d. A and C are correct
11. ______ An integrating center
a. is the disturbance or change that sets the pathway in motion.
b. is an electrical and/or chemical signal that travels to the effector.
c. evaluates incoming signals and compares it with the setpoint.
d. is the minimum stimulus that must be achieved to set the reflect response in motion.
12. ______ All of the following are types of mediated transport except one. Identify the exception.
a. facilitated diffusion
b. primary active transport
c. simple diffusion
d. secondary active transport
13. ______ Negative feedback
a. stabilizes the variable being regulated.
c. reinforces the stimulus.
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MC
Total: 38
b. can prevent the initial disturbance of homeostasis.
d. none of the above
14. ______ Which of the following does NOT influence membrane permeability?
a. the size of the diffusing molecule
b. the thickness of the lipid bilayer
c. the lipid solubility of the diffusing molecule
d. the composition of the lipid bilayer
15. ______ Each of the following is an example of homeostasis except one. Identify the exception.
a. Increased pressure in the aorta triggers mechanisms to lower blood pressure.
b. A rise in blood calcium levels triggers the release of a hormone that lowers blood calcium levels.
c. A rise in estrogen during the menstrual cycle increases the number of progesterone receptors in the uterus.
d. Increased blood sugar stimulates the release of a hormone from the pancreas that stimulates the liver to
store blood sugar.
e. A decrease in body temperature triggers a neural response that initiates physiological changes to increase
body temperature.
16. ______ Which statement is most likely to correctly describe Cell “A” and Cell “B” given the following two facts:
Fact 1: Cell “A” has 324 proteins embedded in its cell membrane.
Fact 2: Cell “B” has 32 proteins embedded in its cell membrane.
a. Cell B is more metabolically active than Cell A.
c. Cell B is a neuron and Cell B is an endocrine cell.
17. ______ Permeability is a property of
a. membranes.
b. ions.
c. solutes.
b. Cell A is more metabolically active than Cell B.
d. Cell A weighs less than Cell B.
d. solvents.
18. ______ What are the two extracellular fluid compartments in the body?
a. intracellular and plasma
b. plasma and interstitial
d. plasma and the fluid portion of the blood
e. proteins.
c. interstitial and intracellular
e. none of these are correct
19. ______ The means by which a cell transports large molecules out of the cell is called
a. phagocytosis.
b. endocytosis. c. exocytosis.
d. diffusion.
e. active transport.
20. ______ Which of the following is a way for solutes in an aqueous solution to move from an area of high solute
concentration to an area of low solute concentration?
a. facilitated diffusion
b. osmosis
c. active transport
d. A and B
e. none of these
21. ______ Which of the following statements about the Na+/K+ pump is FALSE?
a. It transports Na+ out of the cell and K+ into the cell.
b. It is a transport protein.
c. Its activity requires the expenditure of metabolic (cellular) energy.
d. It transports Na+ and K+ in a 1:1 ratio.
e. All of these answers are correct.
22. ______ Facilitated diffusion and active transport differ in that
a. facilitated diffusion uses cell membrane proteins to move substances, whereas active transport does not.
b. facilitated diffusion involves a molecule binding to a protein carrier, whereas active transport does not.
c. energy is necessary for active transport, but not for facilitated diffusion.
d. active transport moves water across the cell membrane, whereas facilitated diffusion does not.
23. ______ Which of the following molecules can move across the phospholipid bilayer by simple diffusion?
a. lipids
b. steroids
c. water
d. A and C
e. A, B and C are correct.
24. ______ The watery medium that surrounds a cell is known as
a. cytosol.
b. protoplasm. c. extracellular fluid.
d. cytoplasm.
e. plasma.
25. ______ Which of the following terms is NOT used to define the structure that separates the contents of a human cell
from its surrounding medium?
a. a cell wall
b. a cell membrane
c. plasma membrane
d. all of these describe the structure indicated in this question
26. ______ Cholesterol is
a. a precursor to steroid hormones.
c. a dangerous fat that is absent from a healthy body.
b. a structural component of cell membranes.
d. A and B
e. A, B, and C
27. ______ Which of the following substances is most alkaline?
a. lemon juice, pH = 2
b. urine, pH = 6
c. tomato juice, pH = 4
d. white wine, pH = 3
28. ______ If a substance has a pH that is less than 7, it is considered
a. neutral.
b. acidic.
c. basic.
d. a buffer.
29. ______ What is the normal range of blood pH?
a. 6.90-7.10
b. 6.80-7.20
c. 7.35-7.45
d. 7.20-7.60
30. ______ What is the most rapid defense against changes in blood pH?
a. respiratory compensation
b. compensation by kidneys
c. buffering
e. 6.75-6.95
d. cardiac compensation
31. ______ When a small amount of hydrochloric acid is added to a solution of Na2HPO4, the pH of the solution does not
change. The pH does not change when a small amount of NaOH is added, either. Based on these observations,
the compound Na2HPO4 is
a. able to accept extra H+ from the HCl.
b. able to donate H+ to the OH- from NaOH.
c. acting as a buffer.
d. A, B and C are correct
32. ______ Each of the following hormones is an amino acid derivative except one. Identify the exception.
a. epinephrine
b. norepinephrine
c. thyroid hormone
d. thyroid-stimulating hormone
33. ______ The posterior pituitary gland secretes
a. Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH)
b. Thyroid Stimulating Hormone (TSH)
c. Adrenocorticotropin Releasing Hormone (ACTH)
d. ADH (Vasopressin)
e. The posterior pituitary secretes all of these.
34. ______ Which endocrine gland consists of two parts, one of which is actually neural tissue?
a. Pituitary
b. Hypothalamus
c. Thyroid
d. Both A and C are correct
35. ______ Luteinizing Hormone (LH) is produced in the
a. Posterior pituitary
b. Anterior pituitary
c. Hypothalamus
d. More than one answer is correct.
36. ______ The pituitary hormone that controls hormone synthesis and release from the thyroid gland is
a. TSH.
b. ACTH.
c. FSH.
d. LH.
e. STH.
37. ______ A person is hyperventilating. What is happening to the pH of her blood?
a. It is becoming more acidic.
b. It is becoming more basic.
c. It is not changing at all.
38. ______ Examine this equation: CO2 + H2O ↔ H2CO3 ↔ H + HCO3
What will happen if you add more H+ into this system?
a. The reaction will proceed to the right.
b. The reaction will proceed to the left.
c. The reaction will not move in either direction.
d. There is not enough information.
+
-
True/False (2 points each)
Write out the entire word ("true" or "false") and IF the statement is FALSE, you MUST correct it for full credit.
39. ________________ Active transport always requires energy in the form of ATP.
40. ________________ When steroid hormones bind to their receptors, gene transcription may start or stop.
41. ________________ If the concentration of a hormone decreases, a cell may initiate the process of upregulation.
42. ________________ Prolactin is produced in the hypothalamus.
43. ________________ Oxytocin is released by the posterior pituitary.
44. ________________ A cell placed in a hyperosmotic solution will always swell.
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Total: 14
45. ________________ A cell placed in a hypertonic solution will always swell.
Short Answer/Essay (5 points each)
46. Epinephrine can cause intestinal blood vessels to constrict and it can cause skeletal muscle blood vessels to dilate.
How is it possible for one molecule to initiate completely different responses in the target organs?
47. Two compartments are separated by a membrane that IS permeable to water and urea, and is NOT permeable to NaCl.
For each of the following scenarios, determine which direction WATER will move. (Remember, NaCl dissociates
in water, but urea does NOT dissociate in water.) Write a brief explanation under each box.
a.
b.
c.
1M
NaCl
1 OsM
NaCl
1M
Urea
2 OsM
Urea
1 OsM
NaCl
1 OsM
Urea
48. Distinguish between the following 4 membrane proteins. Include only the most important distinguishing facts.
Na+/K+ Pump
SGLT
GLUT
Sodium ion channel
49. Examine the following scenario then describe one reflex pathway within the scenario that illustrates the concept of
negative feedback. Correctly label all parts of your pathway. (Hint: There are several pathways happening in this
scenario.)
“Otis is sitting in physiology, waiting for class to begin. His stomach growls as he waits. Across the room, he sees a
classmate pull an entire turkey dinner from her backpack. His eyes widen and he begins to salivate. His classmate
sees him drooling on the table and offers him some of her dinner. He eagerly accepts, and speedily ingests the meal.
His stomach is full, and he sits back with a sigh, ready to learn about human physiology.”
−
Total: 20
BONUS! A cell is placed in a mixture of 200 mOsM urea and 300 mOsM NaCl. What will happen to the cell in this
solution? Explain your answer.
EXAM 2 (82 points)
Name __________________________
Biol 7 (Spring 2013) Riggs
Multiple Choice (1 pt each) Choose the very best answer. Feel free to add a written explanation next to the question.
1.
______ When voltage-gated Na+ channels in a resting neuron open,
a. Na+ rushes into the cell
b. Na+ rushes out of the cell
d. both a and c are correct
e. both b and c are correct
c. the neuron depolarizes
2.
______ Stimulus gated sodium channels are most likely to be located in what part of the neuron?
a. dendrites
b. axon
c. axon terminals
d. cell body (soma)
3.
______ During the absolute refractory period, a neuron ______ be stimulated again.
a. can
b. cannot
c. can sometimes
d. None of these are correct
4.
______ The presence of myelin surrounding a neuron makes the action potential travel
a. slower
b. faster
c. myelin does not affect the speed of an action potential
5.
______ The release of neurotransmitter into the synapse is caused by the ____ of ____ ions in the axon terminal.
b. exit, Na+
c. entry, Ca2+
d. exit, Ca2+
e. exit, K+
a. entry, Na+
6.
______ What is electricity?
a. the movement of charged particles
b. the ability to do work
c. the movement of water across a semipermeable membrane
d. the movement of molecules from a high concentration to a low concentration.
7.
______ Each myosin head has
a. a binding site for an ATP molecule.
c. the ability to “flex”.
b. a binding site for an actin molecule.
d. all of these choices are correct.
8.
______ This protein is found in skeletal muscle tissue and has a binding site for calcium.
a. actin
b. myosin
c. troponin
d. tropomysoin
e. acetylcholine
9.
______ This protein is found in skeletal muscle tissue and has a binding site for myosin.
a. actin
b. myosin
c. troponin
d. tropomysoin
e. acetylcholine
10. ______ This protein is found in skeletal muscle tissue and has a binding site for ATP.
a. actin
b. myosin
c. troponin
d. tropomysoin
e. acetylcholine
11. ______ A bundle of fascicles makes up which of the following structures?
a. a myofibril
b. muscle organ
c. myofiber
d. myofilament
12. ______ Thick myofilaments are made of which protein(s)?
a. myosin
b. actin
c. troponin
d. tropomysoin
e. All of these are correct.
e. B, C and D are correct.
13. ______ During a muscle contraction, this part(s) of a sarcomere STAYS THE SAME SIZE.
a. A band
b. I band
c. H zone
d. Both A and C are correct e. All of these are correct.
14. ______ When a muscle fiber contracts, which of the following parts of a sarcomere get smaller?
a. A band
b. I band
c. H zone
d. Both A and C are correct e. All of these are correct.
15. ______ This part(s) of a sarcomere is made ONLY of actin.
a. A band
b. I band
c. H zone
d. Both A and C are correct
16. ______ Calcium is stored in this part of the muscle cell.
a. sarcoplasmic reticulum
b. sarcolemma c. sarcoplasm
−
Total MC:
35
17. ______ Sensory receptors that respond to chemical stimuli are
a. photoreceptors
b. thermoreceptors
c. mechanoreceptors
e. All of these are correct.
d. sarcomere
e. mitochondria
d. chemoreceptors
e. nociceptors
18. ______ Sensory receptors that respond to pain
a. photoreceptors
b. thermoreceptors
c. mechanoreceptors
d. chemoreceptors
e. nociceptors
19. ______ Sensory receptors in the cochlea are
a. photoreceptors
b. thermoreceptors
c. mechanoreceptors
d. chemoreceptors
e. nociceptors
20. ______ Sensory receptors in the retina are
a. photoreceptors
b. thermoreceptors
c. mechanoreceptors
d. chemoreceptors
e. nociceptors
21. ______ Light waves stimulate photoreceptors most directly at the
a. retina
b. fovea
c. rods
d. cones
e. lens
22. ______ The central nervous system includes which anatomical structures?
a. brain
b. skeletal muscle
c. nerves
d. the heart
e. All answers are correct.
23. ______ The peripheral nervous system includes which anatomical structure(s)?
a. brain
b. skeletal muscle
c. nerves
d. the heart
e. All answers are correct.
24. ______ This type of receptor is found on effector tissues innervated by parasympathetic neurons.
a. myosin
b. nicotinic ACh
c. muscarinic ACh
d. adrenergic
e. Both B & C are correct.
25. ______ This type of receptor is found on effector tissues innervated by sympathetic neurons.
a. myosin
b. nicotinic ACh
c. muscarinic ACh
d. adrenergic
e. Both B and C are
correct.
26. ______ You examine an efferent pathway leaving the spinal cord. There are two neurons in sequence that stimulate
the effector. What branch of the nervous system are you most likely observing? Choose the BEST answer.
a. autonomic NS
b. parasympathetic NS c. afferent NS
d. somatic NS e. Need more information
27. ______ How many neurons connect the CNS to an effector in the somatic NS?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
e. It depends on the effector.
28. ______ When a nicotinic ACh receptor is activated, what happens?
a. nothing b. potassium rushes into the cell
c. sodium rushes into the cell
29. ______ Parietal cells are located in the ____ and produce ____.
a. pancreas, insulin b. stomach, pepsinogen
c. small intestine, amylase
d. Both B and C
d. stomach, hydrochloric acid
30. ______ Stimuli that trigger vomiting are integrated in the
a. medulla
b. hypothalamus c. spinal cord
d. pharynx
31. ______ Mechanical digestion refers to
a. the progressive dehydration of indigestible residue.
c. the enzymatic breakdown of food.
b. the effects of chewing and churning food..
d. the absorption of nutrients in the gut.
32. ______ Nutrient absorption occurs primarily in the
a. stomach.
b. liver.
c. small intestine.
d. large intestine.
33. ______ Most products of fat digestion are absorbed by
a. capillaries.
b. veins
c. lymphatic vessels.
e. Both A and B are correct
e. Both A and C are correct.
d. arterioles.
34. ______ The digestion of a particular carbohydrate results in a large amount of glucose and galactose. This
carbohydrate was probably
a. sucrose.
b. maltose.
c. lactose.
d. cellulose.
e. glycogen.
35. ______ Chief cells secrete
a. amylase.
b. gastrin.
c. mucus.
d. hydrochloric acid.
e. pepsinogen.
Where does this happen? (1 point each)
Just name one place. If this happens NOWHERE, please write "NOWHERE".
36. ___________________ Protein is digested with pepsin.
37. ___________________ Water is absorbed and feces is compacted.
38. ___________________ Bile is secreted.
39. ___________________ Amylase is secreted.
40. ___________________ Peristalsis occurs.
True/False (2 points each)
Write out the entire word ("true" or "false"). For full credit, you must CORRECT all the FALSE statements.
41. ___________________ Sweet, umami or bitter receptors trigger a second messenger cascade.
42. ___________________ Effectors stimulated by sympathetic pathways are also stimulated by parasympathetic
pathways.
43. ___________________ Muscarinic ACh receptors initiate second messenger systems.
44. ___________________ If the heart receives sympathetic stimulation, it will decrease the rate at which it beats.
45. ___________________ ATP is directly required for the contraction (shortening) of a sarcomere.
46. ___________________ Bicarbonate, produced by the liver, neutralizes the acidic chyme coming from the stomach.
Short Answer/Essay (5 points each)
47. Examine the following graph of an action potential in a motor neuron. List the most important events indicated by
numbers 1-6. Also, insert the correct membrane potentials listed on the left side of the graph.
3
4
2
1
6
5
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Total: 22
48. What is rigor mortis? Describe the mechanism by which this condition occurs. Please be specific.
49. Alpha-bungarotoxin is a neurotoxin found in the venom of the Banded Krait, an elusive but deadly snake found in
Southeast Asia. Individuals bitten by the snake become paralyzed and, if not treated immediately, will die of
respiratory failure. Speculate on alpha-bungarotoxin’s mechanism of action.
50. Distinguish between the processes of the digestive system and metabolism.
51. Compare and contrast sensory receptors and cellular receptor proteins that bind molecules in the body.
52. There are many entertaining experiments that involve the production of an afterimage, when you stare at an image for a
long time, then look at a white piece of paper. What is an afterimage? Explain exactly how an afterimage is produced.
−
Total: 25
Bonus! (2 points) The intracellular fluid in a resting neuron has a net charge of +147 millivolts. What is the net charge of
the extracellular fluid? SHOW YOUR WORK FOR CREDIT!
EXAM 3 (77 points)
Name __________________________
Human Physiology: Biology 7 (Spring 2013)
Multiple Choice (1 point each)
1.
______ Relaxation of the ventricles is known as
a. ventricular diastole
b. ventricular systole
c. atrial diastole
d. atrial systole
2.
______ The second sound heard in a heartbeat (dup) is caused by
a. the ventricles contracting
b. the semilunar valves snapping shut
c. the AV valves snapping shut
d. the AV valves snapping open
3.
______ The composition of plasma is essentially identical to interstitial fluid, except for the presence of
a. sodium ions
b. plasma proteins
c. neurotransmitter
d. calcium ions
4.
______ The final outcome of the complement cascade is ____ which causes ______.
a. Major Histocompatability Complex (MHC), phagocytosis
b. MHC, cell lysis
c. Membrane Attack Complex (MAC), cell lysis
d. MAC, phagocytosis
5.
______ Which statement about cardiac muscle is FALSE?
a. It is found only in the heart.
b. It is classified as a striated muscle.
c. It can contract spontaneously.
d. It is easily fatigued.
6.
______ The depolarization of the pacemaker action potential spreads to adjacent cells through
a. gap junctions.
b. tight junctions.
c. chemical synapses.
d. neurotransmitters.
7.
______ If channels are permeable to
b. K+.
a. Na+.
c. Ca2+.
d. A and B are correct
e. A and C are correct
8.
______ In an ECG, abnormally slow conduction of an action potential through the ventricles would change the
a. P wave
b. T wave
c. QRS complex
d. PR interval
e. RT interval
9.
______ Which of the following establishes the heart rate?
a. Perkinje fibers
b. SA node
c. AV node
d. The nervous system
10. ______ The cells responsible for the production of circulating antibodies are
a. plasma cells.
b. NK cells.
c. helper T cells.
d. cytotoxic T cells.
11. ______ Which of these is matched incorrectly?
a. innate immunity - nonspecific responses
b. acquired immunity - responses directed toward specific invaders
c. cell-mediated immunity - responses mediated by B cells
d. humoral immunity - responses focused on the production of antibodies
12. ______ The AV node is important because it
a. directs electrical impulses from the atria to the ventricles.
b. delays the transmission of the electrical impulses to the ventricles so the atria can finish contracting.
c. serves as the pacemaker in a normal heart.
d. A and B are correct
e. A, B, and C are correct
13. ______ The first sounds heard after a student begins releasing the pressure in a blood pressure cuff are caused by
a. the closure of semilunar valves
b. the pulse
c. the closure of the AV valves
d. turbulent blood flow through the brachial artery.
14. ______ What will the heart rate be without nervous input?
a. 30 beats/minute
b. 50 beats/minute
c. 90 beats/minute
39
15. ______ These cytokines specifically act by initiating a fever.
a. Cytotoxic cells
b. Antibodies
c. Intrinsic factors
d. 0 beats/minute
d. Pyrogens
16. ______ The most accurate definition of artery is a vessel that
a. carries highly oxygenated blood.
b. contains smooth muscle in its wall.
c. transports blood away from the heart.
d. transports blood toward the heart.
17. ______ A person with type B blood has
a. A antibodies on her red blood cells. b. A antibodies in her plasma.
c. B antibodies on her red blood cells. d. B antibodies in her plasma.
e. both b and c are correct.
18. ______ You want to increase cardiac output. Which of the following things will accomplish this?
a. decrease stroke volume b. reduce heart rate c. remove sympathetic input d. add sympathetic input
19. ______ Which scenario will increase osmotic pressure in the capillaries?
a. increased stroke volume
b. decreased concentration of plasma proteins
c. increased blood pressure
d. none of these answers is correct
20. ______ What enzyme turns prothrombin into thrombin?
a. fibrin
b. vitamin K
c. fibrinogen
d. prothrombin activator
e. none of these
21. ______ Platelets function in
a. transporting chemicals important for clotting.
b. forming temporary patches in injured areas
c. contraction after clot formation
d. initiating the clotting process
e. all of the above
22. ______ Which parameters are associated with increased resistance in blood vessels?
a. reduced flow b. reduced friction c. increased vessel diameter
c. A and B
23. ______ Which of the following events result in the first heart sound?
a. The AV valves open.
b. The AV valves close.
d. The semilunar valves open.
e. The atria contract.
d. A, B, and C
c. The semilunar valves close.
24. ______ At an intercalated disc
a. the cell membranes of two cardiac muscle fibers are completely separated by a synapse.
b. the myofibrils are loosely attached to the membrane of the disc.
c. two cardiac muscle cells are connected by gap junctions.
d. t-tubules unite the membranes of the adjoining cells.
e. all of the above are correct.
25. ______ A certain drug decreases heart rate by producing hyperpolarization in the pacemaker cells of the heart. This
drug probably binds to
a. nicotinic receptors.
b. muscarinic receptors.
c. alpha adrenergic receptors. d. beta receptors.
Matching (1 point each)
For each question, determine which letter (a, b, c, or d) best matches the statement. Put the answer on your scan-tron!
a. Innate immunity
b. Acquired immunity
c. Both innate and acquired
d. Neither innate nor acquired
26. _____ Inflammation
30. _____ Phagocytosis
27. _____ Can take several days to mobilize
31. _____ Fever
28. _____ Cell-mediated immunity
32. _____ MHC
29. _____ Antibodies
33. _____ Lymphocytes
Matching (1 point each)
For each question, determine which letter (a, b, c, or d) best matches the statement. Put the answer on your scan-tron!
a. T cells
b. B cells
c. Both B and T cells
d. Neither B nor T cells
34. _____ Effector cells of this type are plasma cells.
37. _____ These cells mature in the thymus.
35. _____ These cells produce antibodies.
38. _____ These cells mature in the bone marrow.
36. _____ Effector cells of this type are killer cells.
39. _____ These cells are involved in humoral immunity
Fill in the Blank (1 point each)
40. ___________________ Any chemical that attracts additional immune cells to a site of infection.
41. ___________________ The process by which white blood cells migrate from circulation into the tissues.
42. ___________________ A chemical that marks pathogens so phagocytes can find and ingest them
43. ___________________ Cell suicide.
44. ___________________ The phase of an ECG wave during which ventricular repolarization takes place.
45. ___________________ The vessels where nutrient and gas exchange take place.
46. ___________________ This chemical is released by platelets and causes vasoconstriction.
47. ___________________ The ion responsible for the plateau in the cardiac contractile cell’s action potential.
Correct the False Statement (2 points each)
Determine whether each of the following is true or false. For credit, you must CORRECT the false statements.
48. __________________ Heart rate will increase if more If channels open in the autorhythmic cell.
49. __________________ Freida has O- blood. She is the universal donor and can donate whole blood to anyone.
50. __________________ If a blood sample only coagulates when A antibodies are added to it, then it is Type A blood.
51. ___________________ Edema results when hydrostatic pressure greatly exceeds osmotic pressure in tissues.
52. ___________________ Nervous system input is required for the heart to beat.
Short Answer/Essay/Diagram Adventures
53. During exercise, cardiac output increases. Discuss how this alone will affect blood pressure. Then describe some
possible physiological responses that might compensate for this change in blood pressure homeostasis.
23
54. You often hear about universal donors when talking about blood transfusions. Who is the universal donor? What
does this really mean?
55. Fill in the following chart. Add explanations where necessary to ensure full credit.
56. What are the four cardinal signs of inflammation? Explain what causes each sign, then describe why the
inflammatory response is beneficial to the body.
15
EXAM 4 (76 points)
Name __________________________
Human Physiology: Biology 7 (Spring 2013)
Multiple Choice (1 point each)
NOTE: Questions 1-40 should go on your scantron.
1.
______ Which hormone is primarily responsible for fertile quality cervical mucus?
a. Estrogen
b. Progesterone
c. FSH
d. LH
e. GnRH
2.
______ What symptoms would you expect to see if the body does not produce or respond to vasopressin (ADH)?
a. Excessive concentrated urine production
b. Low potassium levels in the blood
c. Excessive dilute urine production
d. B and C are correct answers
3.
______ Approximately how long does the corpus luteum live following ovulation, assuming no pregnancy occurs?
a. 5 days
b. 12 days
c. 28 days
d. 7 weeks
e. 9 months
4.
______ What hormone initiates the activity of the Leydig cells in the testes?
a. FSH
b. GRH
c. LH
d. progesterone
e. inhibin
5.
______ When the diaphragm contracts, the volume of the chest cavity _____ and alveolar pressure _____.
a. increases, increases
b. increases, decreases c. decreases, increases
d. decreases, decreases
6.
______ At sea level, the partial pressure of oxygen in the air is approximately 160 mm Hg. Under these conditions,
what is the partial pressure of oxygen in the alveoli immediately after inhalation?
a. ≈ 20 mm Hg
b. ≈ 40 mm Hg
c. ≈ 100 mm Hg
d. ≈ 160 mm Hg
7.
______ The mixing of atmospheric air with the air found in the dead space of the lung upon inspiration results in a
partial pressure of _____.
b. N2 in the alveoli that is higher than atmospheric
a. O2 in the alveoli that is higher than atmospheric
c. O2 in the alveoli that is lower than atmospheric
d. CO2 in the alveoli that is lower than atmospheric
8.
______ During intense exercise, the metabolic activity of muscle causes a(n) ____ in the partial pressure of oxygen
in the muscle cells, ____ the movement of oxygen into the tissue.
a. no change: facilitating b. decrease: reducing c. increase: facilitating d. decrease: facilitating
9.
______ Of these choices, what would be the most likely PO2 in an aggressively “exercising” cell?
a. ≈ 30 mm Hg
b. ≈ 40 mm Hg
c. ≈ 46 mm Hg
d. ≈ 100 mm Hg
e. ≈ 160 mm Hg
10. ______ What enzyme catalyzes the following reaction:
CO2 + H2O ↔ H2CO3
a. Carbonic anhydrase
b. Angiotensinogen
c. Renin
d. ACE
e. ATP synthase
11. ______ Compared to the ascending loop of Henle, the descending loop of Henle utilizes _____ ATP.
a. more
b. less
c. the same amount of
d. More information is needed to answer this.
12. ______ Many cells that make up the loop of Henle (both ALH and DLH) are exposed to high extracellular
osmolarity. Which of the following is the most reasonable mechanism for how these cells maintain normal
cell volume?
a. They synthesize intracellular organic solutes as needed to match the extracellular osmolarity.
b. They add or remove water pores as needed.
c. They maintain a water-impermeable membrane.
d. They synthesize water molecules through increased metabolism to offset volume loss.
e. All of these mechanisms could work.
−
Total MC:
40
13. ______ Which of the following statements about osmolarity within the kidneys is INCORRECT?
a. Osmolarity of fluid in the proximal convoluted tubule is greater than that entering the distal convoluted
tubule.
b. Osmolarity of fluid in the ascending loop of Henle is greater than that of the descending loop.
c. The osmolarity of plasma in the vasa recta varies with its location in the renal medulla.
d. The fluid in the proximal tubule is isosmotic with interstitial fluid in the cortex of the kidney.
e. Osmolarity of fluid in the descending loop of Henle is isosmotic with the medullary interstitial fluid.
14. ______ Which of the following is an effect of aldosterone on cells in the collecting duct?
a. increased number of open Na+ and K+ channels in the basolateral membrane
b. increased number of Na+/K+ pumps in the luminal membrane
c. decreased number of Na+/K+ pumps in the basolateral membrane
d. decreased number of open Na+ and K+ channels in the basolateral membrane
e. increased number of open Na+ and K+ channels in the luminal membrane
15. ______ In a normal kidney, which of the following conditions would cause an increase in the glomerular filtration
rate (GFR)?
a. vasodilation of the efferent arteriole
b. an increase in the hydrostatic pressure in Bowman's capsule
c. vasoconstriction of the afferent arteriole
d. a decrease in the concentration of plasma proteins in the blood
e. a decrease in the hydrostatic pressure of the glomerulus
16. ______ Osmoreceptors in the hypothalamus stimulate the production of ____ when they ____.
a. Aldosterone, shrink
b. Aldosterone, stretch
c. ADH, stretch
d. ADH, shrink
17. ______ Overactive macrophages in the alveoli of a smoker’s lungs produce _____, which can lead to emphysema.
a. elastin
b. elastase
c. cortisol
d. surfactant
18. ______ Type II alveolar cells
a. allow rapid diffusion of gases through their membranes
c. are phagocytic
d. A, B, and C are correct
b. secrete a chemical known as surfactant
e. None of these answers are correct.
19. ______ Which of the following most likely represents a possible (relative) value for intrapleural pressure if
atmospheric pressure is set to zero?
a. 160 mmHg
b. 3 mmHg
c. 0 mmHg
d. -3 mmHg
e. More info is needed
20. ______ Filtration occurs in the
a. glomerulus
b. PCT
c. loops of Henle
d. DCT
e. All of these are possible answers
21. ______ All of the following would occur if there was an increase in plasma osmolarity except:
a. production of large amounts of urine
b. thirst
c. concentrated urine
d. release of ADH
22. ______ Macula densa cells detect ____ sodium in the filtrate and most immediately stimulate release of _____.
a. high, angiotensin I b. low, angiotensin II
c. high, renin
d. low, ACE
e. low, renin
23. ______ The enzyme that catalyzes the reaction turning antiotensinogen to angiotensin I is
a. ACE
b. Renin
c. carbonic anhydrase
d. elastase
e. inhibin
24. ______ This is the primary hormone produced by the corpus luteum if pregnancy does not occur.
a. progesterone
b. estrogen
c. LH
d. inhibin
e. HCG
25. ______ This is the hormone most likely responsible for the symptoms of PMS.
a. HCG
b. estrogen
c. LH
d. progesterone
e. inhibin
26. ______ This hormone, detected by a positive pregnancy test, is produced by an embryo when it embeds in the
uterine wall.
a. progesterone
b. inhibin
c. LH
d. HCG
e. GRH
27. ______ This hormone is secreted in both males and females in small bursts, about every 90 min.
a. HCG
b. GRH
c. LH
d. progesterone
e. inhibin
28. ______ This hormone is not found in male humans.
a. FSH
b. GRH
c. LH
d. estrogen
29. ______ This hormone most directly causes ovulation.
a. HCG
b. GRH
c. LH
e. All of these are found in men
d. progesterone
e. testosterone
30. ______ What percentage of CO2, when transported to the lungs, is dissolved directly in the plasma?
a. 2%
b. 7%
c. 23%
d. 70%
e. 98%
31. ______ What percentage of O2, when transported to the lungs, is dissolved directly in the plasma?
a. 2%
b. 7%
c. 23%
d. 70%
e. 98%
Moving molecules!
Analyze the next set of questions in reference to a single cell lining the nephron tubule. Determine if the solute
described in each question is excreted, filtered, reabsorbed or secreted. Read each scenario carefully. The order that
events occur might NOT be accurately portrayed by the order they are described. Fill in your answers on the scantron.
a. Excreted
b. Filtered
c. Reabsorbed
d. Secreted
32. ______ Solute C moves passively across the basolateral membrane of an epithelial cell lining the nephron tubule.
Solute C is actively transported into the epithelial cell across the luminal membrane.
33. ______ Solute B moves passively across the basolateral membrane. Solute B is actively transported out of the
epithelial cell across the luminal membrane.
34. ______ Solute A is actively transported across the basolateral membrane into the epithelial cell. Solute A passively
crosses the luminal membrane.
Correct the False Statement (2 points each)
Determine whether each of the following is true or false. For credit, you must CORRECT the false statements.
PUT THESE ANSWERS ON YOUR SCANTRON!!!
35. ______ ADH, when acting alone, causes the production of DILUTE urine.
36. ______ When alveolar pressure is equal to atmospheric pressure, air flows into the lungs.
37. ______ Type I alveolar cells are a site of gas exchange.
38. ______ Compared to a resting cell, if your activity level increases, the PCO2 in your active cells would decrease.
39. ______ pO2 in the atmosphere on top of Mt Everest is approximately 52mmHg . This will not affect gas exchange.
40. ______ If you are hanging out on top of Mt. Everest, the oxygen hemoglobin dissociation curve will not shift.
Short Answer/Essay/Diagram Adventures
41. Normal gestation of a human fetus is around 9 months. Babies who are born after only 7 months of gestation have a
very difficult time during inhalation. Explain the primary cause of this type of breathing complication.
42. My 90 year old grandmother was just prescribed an ACE-inhibitor. Why do you think she was prescribed this drug?
How will it work?
−
Total: 16
43. At her routine yearly physical exam, Esther is told she has glucose in her urine. Using the following graph and your
knowledge of how glucose is handled in the kidney, describe what is happening in her kidney that is causing this
abnormal situation.
Rate
(mg/min)
Plasma glucose concentration
44. 2,3 DPG is an important substance found in red blood cells. 2,3 DPG helps regulate the binding affinity between
hemoglobin and oxygen. Lower concentrations of 2,3 DPG in the blood causes the oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation
curve to shift to the LEFT. Blood stored in a blood bank loses 2,3 DPG over time. Considering ONLY 2,3 DPG
concentrations in the transfused blood, do you think it would be better for a patient to receive blood closer to the
date it was donated or closer to the blood’s expiration date? Defend your answer.
45. Olive is sitting on her couch at sea level, having a quiet and relaxing cup of tea (Olive doesn’t have kids).
Suddenly, a warewolf crashes through her window! Olive is a quick thinker, and she stabs the warewolf in the
chest, “puncturing his lung”. The warewolf falls to the ground in a pile. What did Olive do? Why did it work?
46. Myoglobin is a hemoglobin-like protein found in some skeletal muscle
cells where it serves as a storage molecule for oxygen. Examine the
following oxygen dissociation curves for myoglobin and hemoglobin.
What do you think is the physiological significance of the differences
between the curves? Hint: Your answer should link structure and
function.
−
Total: 20
EXTRA PAPER FOR YOU…
(with some little gifts)
I WILL NOT GRADE THIS PAGE!!!!
A very generous hormone word list…
Antidiuretic hormone (ADH, Vasopressin)
Adrenocorticotropic hormone
Aldosterone
Calcitonin
Calcitriol
Corticotropin Releasing Hormone
Cortisol
Estrogen
Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH)
Glucagon
Gonadotropin releasing hormone (GRH)
Growth hormone (GH)
GH Releasing Hormone
Human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG)
Inhibin
Insulin
Luteinizing Hormone (LH)
Oxytocin
Parathyroid hormone
Progesterone
Prolactin
Prolactin Releasing Factors
Somatostatin
Testosterone
Thyroid hormone (T3, T4)
Thyrotropin (TSH)
Thyrotropin Releasing Hormone (TRH)
Other stuff…for fun